I'm not seeing it. It seems to me that timestamps can be defined
WITH or WITHOUT time zone, and the semantics of calculating an
interval are fairly clear in either case. An interval doesn't seem
like it should have an associated time zone. Adding an interval
to a timestamp would use the time zone of the timestamp.
What am I missing?
-Kevin
>>> Tom Lane <tgl@sss.pgh.pa.us> >>>
"Kevin Grittner" <Kevin.Grittner@wicourts.gov> writes:
> The standard seems rich enough in this area to
> address all of the concerns I've seen expressed on this thread.
> All the usual advantages for standards compliance accrue, as well.
Last I checked, the standard completely failed to deal with daylight
savings time changes, making it pretty useless as a guide to solving
the problems we want to deal with.
regards, tom lane